Philippians 2:13
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Timothy.
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April 21, 2025 at 10:05 pm #5953
Michael_C
ParticipantHi Tim
Could you explain why you chose to translate the verse as “among you” instead of “in you”. I couldn’t find any other translations that translate it that way. I find it curious that your translation would imply God is working in a body where as the other translations could be taken personally to the lone reader. The following are a few examples.
“for the one bringing forth in you both the desire and the effort – for the sake of his good pleasure – is God.”
Philippians 2:13 NET“For God is working in you, giving you the desire and the power to do what pleases him.”
Philippians 2:13 NLT13 For God is the One operating among you, to be willing and to be working on behalf of [His] good intention. Philippians 2:13 LGV
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May 6, 2025 at 8:31 am #5958
Timothy
KeymasterMichael,
The Greek clause “ἐν ὑμῖν” can either mean “in you” (individually) or “among you” (collectively). This has to do with ambiguity of the 2nd. person plural pronoun “you.” The preposition “ἐν” means “in.” However, since the pronoun ὑμῖν (you – 2nd person plural) can mean either “each of you” (individually) or “all of you” (collectively), context must determine which is meant. You cannot tell by the grammar alone.
There are many times the clause “ἐν ὑμῖν” is translated “among you”: For example, in Gen. 23:9 (LXX) Abraham acquires a place “ἐν ὑμῖν” (among you) to bury Sarah. In Gen. 34:15 every male “ἐν ὑμῖν” (among you) must be circumcised. There are scores of similar examples in the LXX.
In the NT there are also many examples where “ἐν ὑμῖν” is translated “among you.” For example: Matt. 11:21; Matt. 20:26-27; Mk. 10:43-44; Jn. 14:17; Acts 13:26; Acts 15:7; Acts 25:5; Rom. 1:13; Rom. 12:3; 1 Cor. 1:10-11; 1 Cor. 2:2; 1 Cor. 3:3; etc.
There are quite a few places in Paul’s letters where IMHO “ἐν ὑμῖν” should be translated “among you” rather than “in you.” For example, consider 1 Cor. 3:16-17. These verses are often interpreted as referring to the individual Christian. But they refer to the assembly collectively. The tendency in our modern western theology (heavily influenced by Calvinism) is in supposing that God is our “personal” God, that “election” is of individuals, that Jesus is our “personal” Savior rather than the “Savior of the body” (Eph. 5:23), that the Spirit of God dwells in the individual independent of the assembly.
There are a lot of similar examples where the bias of the translators comes through because they view the Spirit of God as having a more individualistic and personal relationship with the Christian (apart from the assembly) rather than a relationship within the collective body with the individual Christian being a “sharer” or “partaker” of the Spirit dwelling in the local assembly (cf. Rom. 11:17; 1 Cor. 12:13; Heb. 6:4). The same bias affects how Phil. 2:13 is translated.
Of course, I would probably be accused of having the opposite bias, emphasizing the Spirit’s relationship with the local body over the individual. (Rom. 12 & 1 Cor. 12 strongly favor my view). Both are certainly true, but the question of which is being emphasized in a given passage which uses this clause is largely dependent on one’s proclivity towards God’s dealings collectively vs. individually. Keep in mind that Paul’s letters were written to churches collectively (except Timothy, Titus, Philemon, and Hebrews). Also, the OT example of Israel as being collectively the covenant people of God rather than individual Israelites having a “personal” relationship with God should set the tone for NT covenant relationships as well. So, IMO, the right bias in these letters is the “collective” nuance. This view implies the necessity of individual Christians being active participants in a local body of believers while the other view greatly diminishes the importance of active membership.
Calvinistic bias also affects other verses such as Phil. 1:6.
NKJV: “being confident of this very thing, that He who has begun a good work in you will complete it until the day of Jesus Christ;”
LGV: “having become convinced of this very thing: that the One having begun a good work among you will complete it until the Day of Jesus Anointed.”The Calvinistic (once-saved-always-saved) concept can be inferred from the NKJV but not from the LGV.
Grace & Peace, Tim
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